Networking Interview Questions-2

1. What does POST stand for?

 a) Printer Online Standard Test

 b) Power On Self Test

 c) Power Off Standard Test

 d) Preferred Operating System Timing

2. A problem with parity error indicates a problem with:

 a) hard drive

 b) I/O Controller

 c) power supply

 d) memory

 e) display

3. WAN stands for:

 a) Wide Area Network

 b) World Area Network

 c) Wide Artificial Network

 d) World Artificial Network

 e) Wide Access Network

4. Hard drives can use the following interfaces (check all that apply):

 a. IDE

 b. Serial

 c. SCSI

 d. EDI

 e. DB-15

5. What is the function of MSCDEX.EXE?

 a) A DOS CD-ROM driver

 b) Memory Management Program

 c) SCSI driver

 d) Loads Windows 3.11 into Upper Memory

 e) None of the Above

6. Your system boots up but you don't hear a beep, which part should you check first?

 a) RAM

 b) System Board

 c) CPU

 d) Speaker

 e) None, that's normal operation

7. What are the two configuration modes of a single IDE to connect harddrive or optical drive?

 a) master

 b) beta

 c) slave

 d) secondary

 8. ESD is:

 a) Electronic Surge Device

 b) Ergonomic System Device

 c) Electronic System Display (for laptops)

 d) Electrostatic Discharge

 e) None of the Above

9.Which of the following is both input and output devices?

 a) serial

 b) video

 c) parallel

 d) Mouse port

 e) Keyboard port

10. There is a lightning storm outside. What is the best way to protect your PC? ( Choose the best option)

 a) Turn on your surge protector

 b) Backup your hard drive

 c) Install a lightning rod

 d) Unplug the computer from the AC Outlet and the modem from the phone line

11. EIDE will support a maximum of how many IDE drives?

 a) 3

 b) 2

 c) 4

 d) 1

 e) None of the above, EIDE only supports IDE drives

12. RS-232 is a standard that is for:

 a) RAM checksum

 b) serial ports

 c) BIOS error checking

 d) parallel ports

13. What is the term for two modems establishing communications with each other:

 a) Interconnecting

 b) Handshaking

 c) Connecting

 d) Pinging

 e) Linking

14. What is EMI?

a) Electro-Magnetic Interference

b) Electric Magnometer Interface

c) Electronic Multimeter Interface

d) Electro-Multiface Interaction

15. On your Computer, the parallel port is a:

 a)15 pin male connector

 b) 9 pin male connector

 c) 9 pin female connector

 d) 25 pin female connector

 e) 25 pin male connector

16. CD-ROMS are read by:

 a) Magentic Servos

 b) Laser Diodes

 c) LEDs

 d) None of the Above

17. On a flat data cable, a red or blue stripe means:

 a) it's a SCSI cable

 b) ground

 c) pin 1

 d) None of the Above

18. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:

a) clusters

b) sectors

c) vectors

d) heads

19. What is the primary performance restraint for mass storage devices :

a) Storage ability

b) Driver acceleration

c) Disk Access Time

d) Route mobility

e) Rate of transfer

20. In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for:

a) Basic Intuitive Output Set

b) Basic Input Organizational System

c) Basic Input Output System

d) Basic Industry Operating System

21. The standard VGA display has ____ pixels in its native graphics mode?

a) 640x320

b) 640x480

c) 680x440

d) 1024x786

22. COM1 is typically represented by which of the following?

a) 15 pin port

b) 9 pin male port

c) 9 pin female port

d) 25 pin male port

23. What device prevents power interruptions, resulting in corrupted data?

a) Battery back-up unit

b)Surge protector

c)Multiple SIMMs strips

d)Data guard system

e)Turn off the AC power

24. When you are going to measure an unknown voltage you should always start with the meter on the _______ voltage setting to prevent damage to the mmeter.

a) Highest

b) Lowest

c) 100ma

d) 0 ohms

25. An IRQ allow interface cards to:

a) Interrupt the CPU to request service

b) Pass data to the CPU to be processed

c) Pass data from one card to another

c) Pass data to the computers memory

26. A system has two IDE hard drives that are each divided into primary and extended partitions, which drive letter is assigned to the primary partition of the second drive in a Windows 9x system?

a) C

b) D

c) E

d) F

27. To find out how much memory is available, you could type _____

a) EMM

b) MEM

c) CHKDSK

d) MEMMAKER

28. Resistance is measured in ?

a) Volts

b) Amps

c) Watts

d) Ohms          

29. When executed from a bootable hard drive, which command will make a formatted floppy disk bootable?

a) COPY C:\DOS\COMMAND.COM A:\

b) ATTRIB C:\*.SYS A:\

c) XCOPY C:\DOS\*.* A:\

d) SYS C: A:

30. To go into Windows Safe mode, which key is used while the system boots?

a) F8

b) F5

c) F4

d) F1

31. Suppose you had an incurable computer virus and decided to wipe out all the data and partitions on your hard drive and reformat using FDISK utility. What is the order in which you must delete the partitions?

a) Extended, Logical, Primary

b) Primary, Extended, Logical

c) Logical, Extended, Primary

d) Logical, Primary, Extended

32. After searching the current directory where does Command.Com search next ?

a) C:\DOS\UTILITIES

b) Config.sys

c) Autoexec.bat

d) the Path Statement

33. Which DOS command will format a floppy disk and transfer the system files

a) SYS C: A:

b) SYS A:

c) FORMAT A: /S

d) FORMAT A: /T

34. How do you differentiate an ATA/33 cable from an ATA/66 cable?

   a) Cable color

   b) Cable pin out

   c) Twists in the cable

   d) Number of wires

35.  Which three of the following cable types can be used to network two computers? 

   a) IDE

   b) Serial

   c) SCSI

   d) Parallel

   e) 10base2

36. Which device is used to extend a 10Base2 network beyond its maximum distance?

     a) Repeater

   b) Router

   c) Switch

   d) Bridge

37. A customer calls. She has no video signal at all on one of three identical computers. What component should she swap from a working system to eliminate the video card as the cause of her problem?

   a) The monitor. 

   b) The motherboard.

   c) The video driver chip.

   d) CMOS.

38.  A bent pin on a 3-row db-15 male connector plug could cause problems with which device or component?

    a) Monitor

   b) Mouse

   c) Printer

   d) External Modem

39. What would a failed processor fan most likely cause? (Pick 2)

   a) CPU damage.

   b) System lockups.

   c) Hard drive failure.

   d) Floppy drive failure.

   e) CD-ROM drive failure

40. Which of the following is the newest type of printer interface?

     a) USB

   b) Serial

   c) SCSI

   d) Parallel

41. Which of the following expose PC’s to viruses? (Pick 2)

    a) A floppy disk received from a friend. 

  b) A downloaded file from the Internet.

  c) FDISK/MBR file on the hard drive. 

  d) DDL file that was loaded with a new machine.

  e) CAB file that was loaded with the new machine.

42. What is the advantage of ECC (Error Checking and Correction) memory?

     a) Cost savings.

   b) Cache error correction.

   c) Memory error correction.

   d) Universal compatibility.

43. What is the maximum distance of a 10BaseT segment of cable?

     a) 100 Meters

   b) 185 Meters

   c) 250 Meters

   d) 800 Meters

44. A customer calls and says his computer will not boot. The memory count is successful, but everything freezes immediately after that. What should you take to the site to fix the problem?

     a) CPU

   b) RAM

   c) Video card

   d) Power supply

45. What is the set of rules used to transmit data from one computer to another called?

     a) Service

   b) Adapter

   c) Protocol

   d) Network operating system

46. How many bits wide is the AGP bus?

     a) 8

   b) 16

   c) 32

   d) 64

47. Your modem will not detect a dial tone. What are the two most likely reasons?

   a) Cable is not plugged in.

 b) The phone line is defective.

 c) The modem is set for tone dial. 

 d) The Internet service provider is down.

 e) The modem is set to disable call waiting.

48. What should be done first when Windows reports bad sectors?

     a) Run a normal Scandisk.

   b) Sys the drive.

   c) Run DriveSpace.

   d) Run a Scandisk with the thorough option.

49. A BIOS password has been enabled on a critical computer, and the password has been forgotten. How do you recover? (CHOOSE TWO)

  a) Fdisk the primary hard drive.

  b) Temporarily remove the CMOS battery. 

  c) Go into BIOS setup and delete the password.

  d) Clear the CMOS by shortening the CMOS jumper.

  e) Boot the computer while holding down the key.

50. What is a crossover cable used for on an Ethernet network?

     a) Test faulty network interface cards.

   b) Connect to network devices without a hub.

   c) Strengthen signal between distance devices on the network.

   d) Convert 10 Mbps throughput to 100 Mbps

51. What equipment type limits network equipment so that it cannot send and receive at the same time?

     a) Half Duplex

   b) Single Duplex

   c) Muted

   d) IEEE

52. What should be checked first when Windows 9x fails to automatically detect new devices?

     a) Device Manager plug-and-play settings.

   b) Run MSD.EXE.

   c) CMOS settings in the BIOS for plug and play.

   d) BIOS settings in the CMOS for plug and play

53. What happens to files deleted from the Recycle Bin?

    a) Clusters are flushed.

    b) The files are moved to C:WindowsTemp.

    c) Sectors of hard drive are blanked/erased.

    d) Associated entries in the FAT are removed.

54. In the Windows 98 Device Manager, what does a black exclamation point on a yellow field next to a   sound card indicate?

a) Sound card is installed but disabled.

b) Sound card is not functioning properly.

c) Sound card is present physically but Windows is not detecting it.

d) Driver for the sound card is installed but the sound card is not present physically.

                    55. You want to access ISP.COM, which is a secure site, how do you do that?

a) HTTPS://ISP.COM

b) HTTPS:/\ISP.COM

c) HTPS:ISP.COM

56. You want to share a Dial-up internet connection with a Windows 98se computer, what is it called?

a) Internet Connection Sharing

b) IRS

c) Internet Dialup

d) Proxy Internet Sharing

57. What is a static IP address?

                    a) A computer component that must be grounded before implementation.

b) A network address generated for a single session only.

c) A permanently assigned address.

d) A computer component that was generated by a capacitor

58. Which two of the following will successfully create a new folder in Windows Explorer?

                    a) Folder, Create, New Folder.

b) File, New, Folder.

c) Edit, Create, New, Folder.

d) Triple Click in Display Window.

e) Right Click in Display Window, New, Folder.

59. What are three ways a bootable floppy disk can be created in Windows 9x?

                    a) In Windows Explorer, right click on the A: drive, choose Format, Copy System Files Only.

b) Format a:/s from a command prompt.

                    c) Control Panel, Add/Remove Programs, Startup Disk tab.

                    d) Format a: from a command prompt.

e) FDISK A: from a command prompt.

60. You are having problems with a particular system and want to replace the current copy of  the registry with an older copy. At a DOS prompt which command should you type?

                    a) SCANREG.EXE /RESTORE

b) SCANREG.EXE /REVISE

c) SCANREG.EXE /REPLACE

d) SCANREG.EXE /REVERSE

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Networking Interview Questions

Networking Interview Questions

OSPF

·         Describe OSPF in your own words.

·         OSPF areas, the purpose of having each of them

·         Types of OSPF LSA, the purpose of each LSA type

·         What exact LSA type you can see in different areas

·         How OSPF establishes neighboor relation, what the stages are

·         If OSPF router is stucked in each stage what the problem is and how to troubleshoot it

·         OSPF hierarchy in the single or multi areas. Cool OSPF behavior in broadcast and nonbroadcast

·         Draw the diagram of typical OSPF network and explain generally how it works, DR, BDR, election, ASBR, ABR, route redistribution and summarization

STP

·         How it works and the purpose

·         Diff types (SSTP, MSTP, RSTP) Cisco - PVST/PVST+

·         root election

·         Diff. port stages and timing for convergence

·         Draw the typical diagram and explain how diff types of STP work

·         What ports are blocking or forwarding

·         How it works if there are topology changes

ACLs

·         What are they

·         Diff types

·         Write an example if you want to allow and to deny…

·         Well-known port numbers (DNS - 53 and etc…)

QOS

·         What is that

·         What is the diff b/w L2 and L3 QoS

·         How it works

Network:

·         Draw the typical network diagram you have to deal with

·         explain how it works

·         What part of it you are responsible

·         firewall, what is that, how it works, how it is diff from ACLs

·         What problems with the network you had had and how you solved it.

·         What are the ways to troubleshoot the network, techniques, commands

·         network security, ways to achieve it

Switching:

·         VLANs

·         STP

·         How a L2 switch works with broadcast, unicast, multicast, known/unknown traffic

·         VRRP, GLBP

·         port monitoring and mirroring

·         L3 switch, how it works

·         PIM sparse and dense modes

Network engineer/architect interview questions

1.      Explain how traceroute, ping, and tcpdump work and what they are used for?

2.      Describe a case where you have used these tools to troubleshoot.

3.      What is the last major networking problem you troubleshot and solved on your own in the last year?

4.      What LAN analyzer tools are you familiar with and describe how you use them to troubleshoot and on what media and network types.

5.      Explain the contents of a routing table (default route, next hop, etc.)

6.      What routing protocols have you configured?

7.      Describe the commands to set up a route.

8.      What routing problems have you troubleshot?

9.      How do you display a routing table on a Cisco? On a host?

10.  How do you use a routing table and for what?

11.  What is a route flap?

12.  What is a metric?

13.  When do you use BGP, IGRP, OSPF, Static Routes?

14.  What do you see as current networking security issues (e.g. NFS mounting, spoofing, one time passwords, etc.)?

15.  Describe a routing filter and what it does.

16.  Describe an access list and what it does.

17.  What is a network management system?

18.  Describe how SNMP works.

19.  Describe the working environment you are currently in, e.g. frequent interruptions, frequent priority shifting, team or individual.

20.  What do you use to write documentation? Editor? Mail reader?

21.  What platform (s) do you currently work on at your desk?

22.  How do you manage multiple concurrent high level projects?

23.  Describe a recent short term stressful situation and how you managed it.

24.  How do you manage a long term demanding stressful work environment?

25.  Have you worked in an assignment based environment, e.g. work request/trouble ticket system, and if so, describe that environment.

26.  Describe what network statistics or measurement tools you are familiar with and how you have used them.

27.  Describe what a VPN is and how it works.

28.  Describe how VoIP works.

29.  Describe methods of QoS.

30.  How does ToS bit work?

**************************************************************************

NETWORKING

1. What is a default gateway? - The exit-point from one network and entry-way into another network, often the router of the network.
2. How do you set a default route on an IOS Cisco router? - ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 x.x.x.x [where x.x.x.x represents the destination address]
3. What is the difference between a domain local group and a global group? - Domain local groups grant permissions to objects within the domain in which the reside. Global groups contain grant permissions tree or forest wide for any objects within the Active Directory.
4. What is LDAP used for? - LDAP is a set of protocol used for providing access to information directories.
5. What tool have you used to create and analyze packet captures? - Network Monitor in Win2K / Win2K3, Ethereal in Linux, OptiView Series II (by Fluke Networks).
6. How does HSRP work?
7. What is the significance of the IP address 255.255.255.255? - The limited broadcast address is utilized when an IP node must perform a one-to-everyone delivery on the local network but the network ID is unknown

Windows sysadmin interview questions

1. What are the required components of Windows Server 2003 for installing Exchange 2003? - ASP.NET, SMTP, NNTP, W3SVC
2. What must be done to an AD forest before Exchange can be deployed? - Setup /forestprep
3. What Exchange process is responsible for communication with AD? - DSACCESS
4. What 3 types of domain controller does Exchange access? - Normal Domain Controller, Global Catalog, Configuration Domain Controller
5. What connector type would you use to connect to the Internet, and what are the two methods of sending mail over that connector? - SMTP Connector: Forward to smart host or use DNS to route to each address
6. How would you optimise Exchange 2003 memory usage on a Windows Server 2003 server with more than 1Gb of memory? - Add /3Gb switch to boot.ini
7. What would a rise in remote queue length generally indicate? - This means mail is not being sent to other servers. This can be explained by outages or performance issues with the network or remote servers.
8. What would a rise in the Local Delivery queue generally mean? - This indicates a performance issue or outage on the local server. Reasons could be slowness in consulting AD, slowness in handing messages off to local delivery or SMTP delivery. It could also be databases being dismounted or a lack of disk space.
9. What are the standard port numbers for SMTP, POP3, IMAP4, RPC, LDAP and Global Catalog? - SMTP – 25, POP3 – 110, IMAP4 – 143, RPC – 135, LDAP – 389, Global Catalog - 3268
10. Name the process names for the following: System Attendant? – MAD.EXE, Information Store – STORE.EXE, SMTP/POP/IMAP/OWA – INETINFO.EXE
11. What is the maximum amount of databases that can be hosted on Exchange 2003 Enterprise? - 20 databases. 4 SGs x 5 DBs.
12. What are the disadvantages of circular logging? - In the event of a corrupt database, data can only be restored to the last backup.

Windows sysadmin interview questions

1. What is Active Directory schema?

    The Active Directory schema contains formal definitions of every object class that can be created in an Active Directory forest it also contains formal definitions of every attribute that can exist in an Active Directory object.Active Directory stores and retrieves information from a wide variety of applications and services. So that it can store and replicate data from a potentially infinite variety of sources, Active Directory standardizes how data is stored in the directory. By standardizing how data is stored, the directory service can retrieve, update, and replicate data while ensuring that the integrity of the data is maintained.

1.      1) Schema master is a set of rules which is used to define the struture of active directory. It contains definitions of all the objects which are stored in AD. It maintains information and detail information of objects.

2) If there are many organisational units and to implement policy on all OUś we use Domain level policy.

3)

4) Global Catalog Server maintains full information about its own domain and partial information about other domains. It is a forest wide role.

12) Sites: one or more well-connected highly reliable and fast TCP/IP subnets. A site allows administrator to configure active directory access and replication topology to take advantage of the physical network.

13) dcpromo to add/remove active directory but first ADC should be removed before DC if we want to remove DC first then check this server is last domain controller in domain.

16) I think the answer for this is schema master.

2. What are the domain functional level in Windows Server 2003?

3. What are the forest functional level in Windows Server 2003?
4. What is global catalog server?

         A global catalog server is a domain controller it is a master searchable database that contains information about every object in every
domain in a forest. The global catalog contains a complete replica of all
objects in Active Directory for its host domain, and contains a partial replica
of all objects in Active Directory for every other domain in the forest.
It have two important functions:
i)Provides group membership information during logon and authentication
ii)Helps users locate resources in Active Directory

5. How we can raise domain functional & forest functional level in Windows Server 2003?
6. Which is the deafult protocol used in directory services?
7. What is IPv6?
8. What is the default domain functional level in Windows Server 2003?
9. What are the physical & logical components of ADS
10. In which domain functional level, we can rename domain name?

   All domain controllers must be running Windows Server 2003, and the Active Directory functional level must be at the Windows Server 2003.
Yes u can rename the domain in windows server 2003

11. What is multimaster replication?
12. What is a site?
13. Which is the command used to remove active directory from a domain controler?
14. How we can create console, which contain schema?
15. What is trust?
16. What is the file that’s responsible for keep all Active Directory database?

1.      1. Difference between Router and Routing: -
——————————————-
Router: -
———
Router is a device which is used to connect different network. A device or setup that finds the best route between any two networks, even if there are several networks to traverse. Like bridges, remote sites can be connected using routers over dedicated or switched lines to create WANs.
Routing: -
———-
Process of delivering a message across one or more networks via the most appropriate path.

2. Dynamic Routing and Static Routing: -
—————————————-
Dynamic routing performs the same function as static routing except it is more robust. Static routing allows routing tables in specific routers to be set up in a static manner so network routes for packets are set. If a router on the route goes down the destination may become unreachable. Dynamic routing allows routing tables in routers to change as the possible routes change. There are several protocols used to support dynamic routing including RIP and OSPF

What is UTP?
UTP — Unshielded twisted pair 10BASE-T is the preferred Ethernet medium of the 90s. It is based on a star topology and provides a number of advantages over coaxial media:
It uses inexpensive, readily available copper phone wire. UTP wire is much easier to install and debug than coax. UTP uses RG-45 connectors, which are cheap and reliable.
What is a router? What is a gateway?
Routers are machines that direct a packet through the maze of networks that stand between its source and destination. Normally a router is used for internal networks while a gateway acts a door for the packet to reach the ‘outside’ of the internal network
What is Semaphore? What is deadlock?
Semaphore is a synchronization tool to solve critical-section problem, can be used to control access to the critical section for a process or thread. The main disadvantage (same of mutual-exclusion) is require busy waiting. It will create problems in a multiprogramming system, where a single CPU is shared among many processes.
Busy waiting wastes CPU cycles.
Deadlock is a situation when two or more processes are waiting indefinitely for an event that can be caused by only one of the waiting processes. The implementation of a semaphore with a waiting queue may result in this situation.
What is Virtual Memory?
Virtual memory is a technique that allows the execution of processes that may not be completely in memory. A separation of user logical memory from physical memory allows an extremely large virtual memory to be provided for programmers when only a smaller physical memory is available. It is commonly implemented by demand paging. A demand paging system is similar to a paging system with swapping. Processes reside on secondary memory (which is usually a disk). When we want to execute a process, we swap it into memory.

HARDWARE

x86 interview questions

These interview questions test the knowledge of x86 Intel architecture and 8086 microprocessor specifically.

1.      What is a Microprocessor? - Microprocessor is a program-controlled device, which fetches the instructions from memory, decodes and executes the instructions. Most Micro Processor are single- chip devices.

2.      Give examples for 8 / 16 / 32 bit Microprocessor? - 8-bit Processor - 8085 / Z80 / 6800; 16-bit Processor - 8086 / 68000 / Z8000; 32-bit Processor - 80386 / 80486.

3.      Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor? - Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU (Arithmetic Logic Review). Similarly 8086 processor has 16 bit ALU.

4.      What is 1st / 2nd / 3rd / 4th generation processor? - The processor made of PMOS / NMOS / HMOS / HCMOS technology is called 1st / 2nd / 3rd / 4th generation processor, and it is made up of 4 / 8 / 16 / 32 bits.

5.      Define HCMOS? - High-density n- type Complimentary Metal Oxide Silicon field effect transistor.

6.      What does microprocessor speed depend on? - The processing speed depends on DATA BUS WIDTH.

7.      Is the address bus unidirectional? - The address bus is unidirectional because the address information is always given by the Micro Processor to address a memory location of an input / output devices.

8.      Is the data bus is Bi-directional? - The data bus is Bi-directional because the same bus is used for transfer of data between Micro Processor and memory or input / output devices in both the direction.

9.      What is the disadvantage of microprocessor? - It has limitations on the size of data. Most Microprocessor does not support floating-point operations.

10.  What is the difference between microprocessor and microcontroller? - In Microprocessor more op-codes, few bit handling instructions. But in Microcontroller: fewer op-codes, more bit handling Instructions, and also it is defined as a device that includes micro processor, memory, & input / output signal lines on a single chip.

11.  What is meant by LATCH? - Latch is a D- type flip-flop used as a temporary storage device controlled by a timing signal, which can store 0 or 1. The primary function of a Latch is data storage. It is used in output devices such as LED, to hold the data for display.

12.  Why does microprocessor contain ROM chips? - Microprocessor contain ROM chip because it contain instructions to execute data.

13.  What is the difference between primary & secondary storage device? - In primary storage device the storage capacity is limited. It has a volatile memory. In secondary storage device the storage capacity is larger. It is a nonvolatile memory. Primary devices are: RAM / ROM. Secondary devices are: Floppy disc / Hard disk.

14.  Difference between static and dynamic RAM? - Static RAM: No refreshing, 6 to 8 MOS transistors are required to form one memory cell, Information stored as voltage level in a flip flop. Dynamic RAM: Refreshed periodically, 3 to 4 transistors are required to form one memory cell, Information is stored as a charge in the gate to substrate capacitance.

15.  What is interrupt? - Interrupt is a signal send by external device to the processor so as to request the processor to perform a particular work.

16.  What is cache memory? - Cache memory is a small high-speed memory. It is used for temporary storage of data & information between the main memory and the CPU (center processing unit). The cache memory is only in RAM.

17.  What is called .Scratch pad of computer.? - Cache Memory is scratch pad of computer.

18.  Which transistor is used in each cell of EPROM? - Floating .gate Avalanche Injection MOS (FAMOS) transistor is used in each cell of EPROM.

19.  Differentiate between RAM and ROM? - RAM: Read / Write memory, High Speed, Volatile Memory. ROM: Read only memory, Low Speed, Non Voliate Memory.

20.  What is a compiler? - Compiler is used to translate the high-level language program into machine code at a time. It doesn.t require special instruction to store in a memory, it stores automatically. The Execution time is less compared to Interpreter.

21.  Which processor structure is pipelined? - All x86 processors have pipelined structure.

22.  What is flag? - Flag is a flip-flop used to store the information about the status of a processor and the status of the instruction executed most recently

23.  What is stack? - Stack is a portion of RAM used for saving the content of Program Counter and general purpose registers.

24.  Can ROM be used as stack? - ROM cannot be used as stack because it is not possible to write to ROM.

25.  What is NV-RAM? - Nonvolatile Read Write Memory, also called Flash memory. It is also know as shadow RAM.

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